You are reading into the Scriptures something that is not there. 1 Corinthians 14:22 says, 'Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe.' It says nothing about the unbelievers being Jews. The term 'unbeliever' can be applied to any unbeliever, whether Jew or non-Jew. The truth is, we do ocassionally have an unbelieving Jew in our meetings. If I understand you correctly, that would in your view be a legitimate reason to speak in tongues. Have I understood you correctly?